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ASC-094 - ASC Storage Management Assessment - Dump Information

Vendor : Symantec
Exam Code : ASC-094
Exam Name : ASC Storage Management Assessment
Questions and Answers : 77 Q & A
Updated On : November 15, 2017
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ASC-094 Questions and Answers


QUESTION: 64

When implementing Storage Foundation 5.1 on a Linux server with pre-existing LVM volumes, which two circumstances would prevent you from being able to convert an LVM Volume Group to a Veritas Volume Manager Diskgroup? (Select two.)

  1. The volume group contains a root volume.
  2. The volume group contains ext2 file system.
  3. There is insufficient space on the root disk to save information about each physical disk.
  4. The physical disk does not contain at least three unallocated partitions.
  5. The volume group contains file systems that are 100% full.

Answer: A, C


QUESTION: 65

Which two capabilities are supported by Veritas Operations Manager (VOM)? (Select two.)

  1. Ability to manage multiple Storage Foundation hosts through a single console
  2. Ability to clone an entire diskgroup onto another system, such as for rolling out applications from test and development environments into production
  3. Ability to disable all DMP paths to a particular switch in a single operation, enabling the switch to be safely taken down for maintenance
  4. Ability to rollout Storage Foundation upgrades to multiple hosts through a single console
  5. Ability to automate the provisioning of Storage Foundation onto managed hosts

Answer: A, C


QUESTION: 66

A customer has asked you to implement Storage Foundation 5.1 with keyless licensing using Veritas Operations Manager (VOM). Which of the following statements is true?

  1. Storage Foundation 5.1 can only be enabled if the VOM server is available and connected at installation time.
  2. Storage Foundation 5.1 can be enabled without a VOM server, but if the system is unable to connect to the VOM server within 60 days the server will be unable to import any diskgroups.

  3. Storage Foundation 5.1 can be enabled without a VOM server, but if the system does not connect to a VOM server within 60 days, then this will result in notifications of non- compliance being sent to the system logs.
  4. Storage Foundation 5.1 will cease to operate unless a valid license key for the server is entered into VOM within 60 days.

Answer: C


QUESTION: 67

When configuring CVM diskgroups, how should the detach-policy ordinarily be set?

  1. all
  2. local
  3. global
  4. none

Answer: C


QUESTION: 68

Which feature of Storage Foundation 5.1 Enterprise should be deployed to optimize the usage of Solid State Devices (SSD)?

  1. Dirty Region Logging (DRL)
  2. Disk Group Split and Join (DGSJ)
  3. Dynamic Storage Tiering (DST)
  4. Fast Mirror Resync (FMR)

Answer: C


QUESTION: 69

When configuring mirrored volumes, which of the following statements is true? (Select two.)

  1. DRLs enable fast recovery of mirrored volumes after a plex is re-attached by tracking the blocks that have changed since the plex became detached
  2. DRLs enable fast recovery of mirrored volumes after a system crash by tracking the regions of the volume that are active at the time of the crash

  3. DRLs enable fast recovery of mirrored volumes by tracking the files on the volume that have changed
  4. DRLs should be configured for each plex within a mirrored volume
  5. DCOs can be configured to provide the same capabilities as DRLs in Storage Foundation 5.1

Answer: B, E


QUESTION: 70

Which of the following RAID levels must be configured as layered volume within a Veritas Volume Manager diskgroup?

  1. RAID 0+1
  2. RAID 1+0
  3. RAID 1
  4. RAID 5

Answer: B


QUESTION: 71

A customer has asked an administrator to create a space-optimized snapshot of a volume using the Veritas FlashSnap capabilities within Storage Foundation. The original volume is called "vol1" and the snapshot volume will be called "snap-vol1". Where is the snapshot data held for this snap volume?

  1. Cache Object
  2. vol1 Volume
  3. snap-vol1 Volume
  4. Filesystem

Answer: A


QUESTION: 72

Which command should be used to determine how much space a space-optimized snapshot is using?

  1. df
  2. vxcache

  3. vxsnap
  4. vxvol

Answer: B


QUESTION: 73

Which two features of Storage Foundation 5.1 Enterprise are most applicable for mirroring data between two different data centers? (Select two.)

  1. Dirty Region Logging (DRL)
  2. Disk Group Split and Join (DGSJ)
  3. Dynamic Storage Tiering (DST)
  4. Fast Mirror Resync (FMR)
  5. Site Awareness

Answer: D, E


QUESTION: 74

Which volume layout achieves redundancy by striping data with parity across multiple disks?

  1. concatenation
  2. RAID 1
  3. RAID 5
  4. striped mirroring

Answer: C


QUESTION: 75

Which statement is true about relinking the Oracle RAC libraries in SFRAC 5.1?

  1. The "installsfrac" "configure" command should be used to relink libraries.
  2. The libraries are dynamically linked when Oracle is started
  3. The only way to relink libraries is manually, using the ln command.
  4. In SFRAC 5.1, the libraries no longer need to be relinked.

Answer: A


QUESTION: 76

What are the advantages of deploying Veritas Volume Manager for thin provisioned disks over the O/S Logical Volume Manager? (Select two.)

  1. None, the O/S Logical Volume Manager provides similar support for thin provisioning.
  2. Veritas Volume Manager provides an API that can be deployed by selected arrays to enable thin reclamation.
  3. Veritas Volume Manager has a SmartMove feature that facilitates fat to thin migration and enables volumes to be mirrored more efficiently across thin storage.
  4. Veritas Volume Manager has a SmartSync feature to enable only the blocks that have changed to be synchronized when a thin plex is reattached to a volume.
  5. Veritas Volume Manager has a Dynamic Storage Tiering (DST) capability to enable thick and thin storage tiers to be optimally deployed.

Answer: B, C


QUESTION: 77

Which feature of Storage Foundation should be deployed when mirroring volumes that contain thin provisioned LUNs?

  1. Disk Group Split and Join (DGSJ)
  2. Fast Mirror Resync (FMR)
  3. SmartMove
  4. SmartSync

Answer: C


Symantec ASC-094 Exam (ASC Storage Management Assessment) Detailed Information

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Successful completion of the programs’ current requirements will result in the achievement and reward of either a Symantec Certified Specialist (SCS) or Symantec Certified Professional (SCP) certificate.
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Symantec End Users, Customers, Employees, and Partners (optional). Although each product varies in complexity and depth, all certification exams are created specifically for customers and cover core elements measuring technical knowledge against factors such as installation, configuration, deployment, product management & administration, and day-to-day maintenance. While certification is optional for partners and employees, certification is not a requirement of the Symantec Partner Program and does not count toward program classification.
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Exams will be available on the same schedule worldwide in English at Pearson VUE. Translations will be determined on a country-by-country basis.
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Symantec receives candidate exam results daily via file transfers from Pearson VUE to CertTracker Be sure you keep your personal information in your CertTracker profile up-to-date so that you receive proper credit for exams passed and certifications earned.
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Passing scores vary by exam. For more information on specific certifications in each category, please see the certification exam details within your selected product solution training path.
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If you do not pass an exam on your first attempt, you must wait at least 3 days (72 hours) before a second attempt. If you do not pass an exam on your second attempt, then you must wait at least 2 weeks (14 days) between each additional attempt. If you need to retake an exam that you have already passed in order to fulfill a certification track requirement, you may do so after 3 months. The same cost applies whether you take an exam once or many times.
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Certification requirements, sample exams, exam objectives, recommended training and registration is available for each certification and corresponding exam. For more information on specific certifications in each category, please see the certification exam details within your selected product solution training path.
Are the exams based on current Symantec product versions?
Exams are developed for the current version of the Symantec product release at the time of development. Exams may be updated after significant new versions are released. New exams may not always correspond to the software release schedule.
How do I know what software release version an exam covers?
For more information on specific certifications in each category, please see the certification exam details within your selected product solution training path.
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Sample exams are available. Each sample exam consists of multiple-choice items. Some items may have a supporting exhibit which you will be directed to view before answering the item. The sample exams are not timed, however, you should attempt to complete them as quickly as you can. Certification requirements, sample exams, exam objectives, study guides, recommended training, and registration is available for each certification and corresponding exam. For more information on specific certifications in each category, please see the certification exam details within your selected product solution training path.
Why does Symantec list a range of questions for exams?
Symantec regularly conducts statistical analyses of certification exam results for exam maintenance purposes. In doing so, Symantec publishes a range of questions per exam to account for “unscored” questions. In order to ensure the value of the Symantec certification program, Symantec routinely updates exams with new questions on an unannounced basis. Those new questions are initially delivered as “unscored” so that Symantec can evaluate the performance in the field/on the released exam. The “unscored” questions do not count towards your passing score and additional time is already incorporated into the total exam duration to answer these questions.
Symantec also regularly updates exam questions where the actual number of questions per exam may vary from time to time as these unannounced updates occur.
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Symantec end users, both internally and in the field, are studied to define the job performance requirements. The results determine the minimum level of competence required for the defined job performance and is tested in the exams. Symantec follows industry standards for “high stakes” exam development.
How are passing scores established?
Although it is intuitive to think that an appropriate passing score for an examination should be 70 or 75 percent correct based on personal experiences taking classroom tests, these arbitrary values may not reflect the performance level expected of the “minimally qualified candidate” given the difficulty of the test. For example, if the examination is very easy, a passing score of 70 may be too low. However, if the examination is very difficult, this same value may be too high.
Establishing passing scores requires the application of systematic procedures that consider the defined performance level definition of the “minimally qualified candidate” and the difficulty of the examination. Before the final passing scores are established, they are evaluated to ensure that the available validity evidence supports their use for the intended purpose of distinguishing the “minimally qualified candidates” from those who are not yet qualified. This systematic method is used to establish and maintain the fairness, validity and reliability of exams.
In order to ensure the value of the Symantec certification program, Symantec routinely updates exams with new questions. In these cases the passing percentage could change per exam from time to time as these unannounced updates occur

Symantec ASC-094

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